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r/ultimategeneral • … • u/GeneralBurgoyne

Why are 1850s era rifles modelled as significantly worse at melee than 1840s era rifles? The only thing I could think of is perhaps the length is shorter, so less bayonet reach, but even if that, it's not by much. Is it pure game balancing?

Just a thought I had when equipping my men with "better" rifles then finding they were being hurt more in melees with the rebs.

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